ISTQB - Sample Questions Page5

Q. 851: During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process do you compare actual with expected results?

A. Test closure activities

B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

C. Test analysis and design

D. Test implementation and execution

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Q. 852: Which one of the following pairs of factors is used to quantify risks?

A. Impact and Cost

B. Likelihood and Impact

C. Product and Project

D. Probability and Likelihood

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Q. 853: Which of the following BEST describes a keyword-driven testing approach?

A. Test input and expected results are stored in a table or spreadsheet, so that a single control script can execute all of the tests in the table

B. Action-words are defined to cover specific interactions in system (e.g., log-on entries) which can then be used by testers to build their tests

C. Keywords are entered into a test harness to obtain pre-defined test coverage reports

D. The test basis is searched using keywords to help identify suitable test conditions

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Q. 854: Which of the following is a TYPICAL objective of a pilot project for introducing a testing tool into an organization?

A. To assess whether the benefits will be achieved at a reasonable cost

B. To identify the initial requirements of the tool

C. To select the most suitable tool for the intended purpose

D. To document test design and test execution processes

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Q. 855: Which activity in the Fundamental Test Process creates test suites for efficient test execution?

A. Implementation and execution

B. Planning and control

C. Analysis and design

D. Test closure

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Q. 856: What does a test execution tool enable?

A. Tests to be executed automatically, or semi automatically

B. Tests to be written without human intervention

C. Preparation of test data automatically

D. Manage test assets such as test conditions and test cases

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Q. 857: What is the purpose of configuration management in testing?

a. To choose and implement a suitable configuration management tool.

b. To identify unique items of testware and their related developed software.

c. To provide traceability between items of testware and developed software.

d. To enable managers to configure the software.

e. To control the versions of software released into the test environment.

A. a, c and e

B. a, b and d

C. b, c and d

D. b, c and e

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Q. 858: Which of the following best describes the purpose of non-functional testing?

A. To measure characteristics of a system which give an indication of how the system performs its functions

B. To ensure that a system complies with the quality standards set by ISO 9126

C. To ensure that the system deals appropriately with software malfunctions

D. To measure the extent to which a system has been tested by functional testing

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Q. 859: Which one of the following methods for test estimation rely on information captured from previous projects?

A. Test point-based

B. Expert-based

C. Metrics-based

D. Development effort-based

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Q. 860: Arrive-and-Go airline wants to clarify its baggage handling policy, whilst maximizing revenues, and will introduce the following tariffs for all baggage per individual customer (weights are rounded up to the nearest 0.1Kg):

The first 2Kg will be carried free of charge.

The next 10 Kg will be carried for a flat charge of $10.

An additional 15Kg will be charged a total charge of $17.

Luggage over this amount will be charged at $5 per Kg, up to a maximum of 150Kg per person.

No passenger may take more that 150Kg with them.

Which of the following would constitute boundary values for baggage weights in the price calculation?

A. 0, 5.0, 10.0, 17.0

B. 2.0, 9.9, 15.0, 26.9

C. 1.9, 12.0, 14.9, 150.0

D. 2.0, 12.1, 27.0, 150.1

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 851	B
Q. 852	B
Q. 853	D
Q. 854	A
Q. 855	A
Q. 856	A
Q. 857	D
Q. 858	A
Q. 859	C
Q. 860	D

Q. 861: What should be the MAIN objective during development testing?

A. To cause as many failures as possible so that defects in the software are identified and can be fixed

B. To confirm that the system works as expected and that requirements have been met

C. To assess the quality of the software with no intention of fixing defects

D. To give information to stakeholders of the risk of releasing the system at a given time

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Q. 862: Which one of the following BEST describes a test control action?

A. Setting a completion date

B. Reporting on poor progress

C. Adding extra test scripts to a test suite

D. Retesting a defect fix

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Q. 863: Which of the following statements describe why exploratory testing is a useful test design technique?

a. It can help derive test cases based on the internal structure of systems.

b. It is useful when there are limited specification documents available.

c. It is useful when there testing is constrained due to time pressures.

d. It is a cheaper alternative to more formal test design techniques.

A. b and c

B. a and c

C. b and d

D. c and d

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Q. 864: Which two of the following are attributes of structural testing?

a. It is based on testing features described in a functional specification.

b. It can include statement and decision testing.

c. It can be carried out at all levels of testing.

d. It can include debugging.

A. a and b

B. a and d

C. b and d

D. b and c

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Q. 865: Which one of the following BEST describes the purpose of a priority rating in an incident report?

A. To show which parts of the system are affected by the incident

B. To show how quickly the problem should be fixed

C. To show how much it would cost to fix the defect

D. To show progress of testing

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Q. 866: Which of the following statements correctly describes the benefit of fault attacks?

A. They are more effective at finding faults than formal test design techniques

B. They are useful when there is limited experience in the test team

C. They can evaluate the reliability of a test object by attempting to force specific failures to occur

D. They are less structured than other experience-based techniques

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Q. 867: Which of the following is MOST clearly a characteristic of structure based (white-box) techniques?

A. Test cases are independent of each other

B. Test cases can be easily automated

C. Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code

D. Test cases are derived systematically from specifications

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Q. 868: Which of the following is a MAJOR activity of test planning?

A. Initiation of corrective actions

B. Measuring and analysing results

C. Determining the exit criteria

D. Monitoring and documenting progress

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Q. 869: Retirement of software or a system would trigger which type of testing?

A. Load testing

B. Portability testing

C. Maintenance testing

D. Maintainability testing

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Q. 870: Which of the following statements about black box and white box techniques is correct?

A. Decision Testing, Equivalence Partitioning and Condition Coverage are all black box techniques

B. Decision Table Testing, State Transition and Use Case Testing are all black box techniques

C. Decision Testing, Equivalence Partitioning and Statement Testing are all white box techniques

D. Boundary Value Analysis, State Transition and Statement Testing are all white box techniques

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 861	A
Q. 862	C
Q. 863	A
Q. 864	D
Q. 865	B
Q. 866	C
Q. 867	C
Q. 868	C
Q. 869	C
Q. 870	B

Q. 871: Which of the following are characteristics of good testing in any life cycle model?

a. Every development activity has a corresponding test activity.

b. Testers review development documents early.

c. There are separate levels for component and system integration test.

d. Each test level has objectives specific to that level.

e. Each test level is based on the same test basis.

A. a, d and e

B. b, c and e

C. a, c and d

D. a, b and d

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Q. 872: A system requires 100% decision coverage at component testing for all modules.

The following module has been tested with a single test case.

The test case follows the path A, B, D, E, F, G.

What level of decision coverage has been achieved?

A. 100%

B. 50%

C. 75%

D. 90%

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Q. 873: Which of the following statements is GENERALLY true of testing?

a. Testing can show the presence of defects.

b. Testing reduces the probability of uncovered defects.

c. Testing can show that a previously present defect has been removed.

d. Testing can prove that software is defect free.

A. a, b and c

B. a, b and d

C. a, c and d

D. b, c and d

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Q. 874: Which one of the following characteristics of test execution tools describes best a specific characteristic of a keyword-driven test execution tool?

A. A table containing test input data, action words, and expected results controls the execution of the system under test.

B. Actions of testers will be recorded in a script that can be rerun several times.

C. Actions of testers will be recorded in a script that is then being generalized to run with several sets of test input data.

D. The ability to log test results and compare them against the expected results.

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Q. 875: Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools?

a. Variables that are never used.

b. Security vulnerabilities.

c. Poor performance.

d. Unreachable code.

e. Business processes not followed.

A. b, c and d are true; a and e are false

B. a is true; b, c, d and e are false

C. c, d and e are true; a and b are false

D. a, b and d are true; c and e are false

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Q. 876: The Following table shows 6 test procedures (P to U) that must now be entered into a test execution schedule.

Test Proce-dure ID	Business Priority (1 High 2 Medium 3 Low)	Dependencies on other test procedures	Other dependencies
P	3	None	Delivery of the code for this part of system is running very late
Q	1	None	Regression testing only
R	1	Requires S to be run first	None
S	2	None	None
T	2	None	Regression testing only
U	3	None	None

Business severity is regarded as the most important element in determining the sequence of the test procedures, but other dependencies must also be taken into consideration. Regression testing can only be run once all other tests have completed.

Which of the following represents the MOST effective sequence for the test execution schedule (where the first entry in the sequence is the first procedure to be run, the second entry is the second to be run and so on)?

A. R, Q, S, T, U, P

B. S, R, P, U, Q, T

C. Q, R, S, T, P, U

D. S, R, U, P, Q, T

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Q. 877: Which of the following activities would improve how a tool is deployed within an organization?

a. Defining best practice guidelines for users.

b. Roll out the tool across the organization as quickly as possible to all users.

c. Provide technical support to the test team for each type of tool.

d. Introduce a system to monitor tool usage and user feedback.

e. Ensure that the test process is not changed as result of the tool's introduction.

A. a, b and c.

B. a, c and d.

C. c, d and e.

D. b, d and e.

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Q. 878: Which of the following is MOST likely to be an objective of a pilot project to introduce a test tool?

A. To assess if the test tool brings benefits at reasonable cost

B. To ensure that developers will use the test tool

C. To ensure that the time spent testing and the cost of testing is reduced

D. To assess if everyone in the organisation can be trained prior to roll-out

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Q. 879: Which of the following statements describe why error guessing is a useful test design technique?

a. It can help derive test cases based on analysis of specification documents.

b. It can identify tests not easily captured by formal techniques.

c. It can make good use of tester's experience and available defect data.

d. It is a cheaper alternative to more formal test design techniques.

A. a and b

B. b and c

C. c and d

D. a and c

Q. 881: A programme level Master Test Plan states that a number of best practices must be adopted for its project life cycle models, irrespective of whether a sequential or iterative-incremental approach is adopted for each project. Which of the following life cycle related best practices would you expect to see in the Master Test Plan?

a. There should be a testing activity that corresponds to each development activity.

b. Each project should have four test levels if using a V-model.

c. Test personnel should ensure that they are invited to review requirements and design documents as soon as draft versions are available.

d. System testing must not be performed by the development teams.

A. a and b

B. a and c

C. b and d

D. c and d

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Q. 882: Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key principles of software testing?

A. Automated tests are better than manual tests for avoiding the Exhaustive Testing.

B. Exhaustive testing is, with sufficient effort and tool support, feasible for all software.

C. It is normally impossible to test all input / output combinations for a software system.

D. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defects.

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Q. 883: Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for a test team?

A. Determine whether enough component testing was executed.

B. Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected.

C. Prove that all faults are identified.

D. Prove that any remaining faults will not cause any failures.

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Q. 884: Which of these tasks would you expect to perform during Test Analysis and Design?

A. Setting or defining test objectives.

B. Reviewing the test basis.

C. Creating test suites from test procedures.

D. Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement.

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Q. 885: Below is a list of problems that can be observed during testing or operation.

Which is MOST likely a failure?

A. The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box.

B. One source code file included in the build was the wrong version.

C. The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables.

D. The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm.

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Q. 886: Which of the following, if observed in reviews and tests, would lead to problems (or conflict) within teams?

A. Testers and reviewers are not curious enough to find defects. _

B. Testers and reviewers are not qualified enough to find failures and faults.

C. Testers and reviewers communicate defects as criticism against persons and not against the software product.

D. Testers and reviewers expect that defects in the software product have already been found and fixed by the developers.

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Q. 887: Which of the following statements are TRUE?

A. Software testing may be required to meet legal or contractual requirements.

B. Software testing is mainly needed to improve the quality of the developer’s work.

C. Rigorous testing and fixing of defects found can help reduce the risk of problems occurring in an operational environment.

D. Rigorous testing is sometimes used to prove that all failures have been found.

A. B and C are true; A and D are false.

B. A and D are true; B and C are false.

C. A and C are true, B and D are false.

D. C and D are true, A and B are false.

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Q. 888: Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?

A. Testing pinpoints (identifies the source of) the defects. Debugging analyzes the faults and proposes prevention activities.

B. Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software.

C. Testing removes faults. Debugging identifies the causes of failures.

D. Dynamic testing prevents causes of failures. Debugging removes the failures.

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Q. 889: Which statement below BEST describes non-functional testing?

A. The process of testing an integrated system to verify that it meets specified requirements.

B. The process of testing to determine the compliance of a system to coding standards.

C. Testing without reference to the internal structure of a system.

D. Testing system attributes, such as usability, reliability or maintainability.

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Q. 890: What is important to do when working with software development models? [K1]

A. To adapt the models to the context of project and product characteristics.

B. To choose the waterfall model because it is the first and best proven model.

C. To start with the V-model and then move to either iterative or incremental models.

D. To only change the organization to fit the model and not vice versa.

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 881	B
Q. 882	C
Q. 883	B
Q. 884	B
Q. 885	A
Q. 886	C
Q. 887	C
Q. 888	B
Q. 889	D
Q. 890	A

Q. 891: Which of the following characteristics of good testing apply to any software development life cycle model?

A. Acceptance testing is always the final test level to be applied.

B. All test levels are planned and completed for each developed feature.

C. Testers are involved as soon as the first piece of code can be executed.

D. For every development activity there is a corresponding testing activity.

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Q. 892: For which of the following would maintenance testing be used?

A. Correction of defects during the development phase.

B. Planned enhancements to an existing operational system.

C. Complaints about system quality during user acceptance testing.

D. Integrating functions during the development of a new system.

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Q. 893: Which of the following statements are TRUE?

A. Regression testing and acceptance testing are the same.

B. Regression tests show if all defects have been resolved.

C. Regression tests are typically well-suited for test automation.

D. Regression tests are performed to find out if code changes have introduced or uncovered defects.

E. Regression tests should be performed in integration testing.

A. A, C and D and E are true; B is false.

B. A, C and E are true; B and D are false.

C. C and D are true; A, B and E are false.

D. B and E are true; A, C and D are false.

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Q. 894: Which of the following comparisons of component testing and system testing are TRUE?

A. Component testing verifies the functioning of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions with different parts of the system.

B. Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications, functional specifications or use cases.

C. Component testing focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics.

D. Component testing is the responsibility of the technical testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system.

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Q. 895: Which of the following are the main phases of a formal review?

A. Initiation, status, preparation, review meeting, rework, follow up.

B. Planning, preparation, review meeting, rework, closure, follow up.

C. Planning, kick off, individual preparation, review meeting, rework, follow up.

D. Preparation, review meeting, rework, closure, follow up, root cause analysis.

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Q. 896: Which TWO of the review types below are the BEST fitted (most adequate) options to choose for reviewing safety critical components in a software project?

Select 2 options.

A. Informal review.

B. Management review.

C. Inspection.

D. Walkthrough.

E. Technical Review

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Q. 898: A defect was found during testing. When the network got disconnected while receiving data from a server, the system crashed. The defect was fixed by correcting the code that checked the network availability during data transfer.

The existing test cases covered 100% of all statements of the corresponding module. To verify the fix and ensure more extensive coverage, some new tests were designed and added to the test suite.

What types of testing are mentioned above?

A. Functional testing.

B. Structural testing.

C. Re-testing.

D. Performance testing.

A. A, B and D.

B. A and C.

C. A, B and C.

D. A, C and D.

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Q. 900: Which TWO of the following solutions below lists techniques that can all be categorized as Black Box design techniques?

Select 2 options.

A. Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, state transition, and boundary value.

B. Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, use case.

C. Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, checklist based, statement coverage, use case.

D. Equivalence Partitioning, cause-effect graph, checklist based, decision coverage, use case.

E. Equivalence Partitioning, cause-effect graph, checklist based, decision coverage and boundary value.

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 891	D
Q. 892	B
Q. 893	C
Q. 894	B
Q. 895	C
Q. 896	C,E
Q. 897	A
Q. 898	C
Q. 899	B
Q. 900	A,B

Q. 901: An employee’s bonus is to be calculated. It cannot become negative, but it can be calculated to zero. The bonus is based on the duration of the employment. An employee can be employed for less than or equal to 2 years, more than 2 years but less than 5 years, 5 to 10 years, or longer than 10 years. Depending on this period of employment, an employee will get either onus or a bonus of 10%, 25% or 35%.

How many equivalence partitions are needed to test the calculation of the onus?

A. 3.

B. 5.

C. 2.

D. 4.

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Q. 902: Which of the below would be the best basis for fault attack testing?

A. Experience, defect and failure data, knowledge about software failures.

B. Risk analysis performed at the beginning of the project.

C. Use Cases derived from the business flows by domain experts.

D. Expected results from comparison with an existing system.

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Q. 903: Which of the following would be the best test approach when there are poor

specifications and time pressures?

A. Use Case Testing.

B. Condition Coverage.

C. Exploratory Testing.

D. Path Testing.

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Q. 904: Which one of the following techniques is structure-based?

A. Decision testing.

B. Boundary value analysis.

C. Equivalence partitioning.

D. State transition testing.

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Q. 905: You have started specification-based testing of a program. It calculates the

greatest common divisor (GCD) of two integers (A and B) greater than zero.

calcGCD (A, B);

TC	A	B
1	1	1
2	INT_MAX	INT_MAX
3	1	0
4	0	1
5	INT_MAX+1	1
6	1	INT_MAX+1

The following test cases (TC) have been specified.

TC A B

1 1 1

2 INT_MAX INT_MAX

3 1 0

4 0 1

5 INT_MAX+1 1

6 1 INT_MAX+1

INT_MAX: largest Integer

Which test technique has been applied in order to determine test cases 1 through 6?

A. Boundary value analysis.

B. State transition testing.

C. Equivalence partitioning.

D. Decision table testing.

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Q. 907: Which of the following best describes the task partition between test manager and tester?

A. The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and controls to be used.

B. The test manager plans, organizes and controls the testing activities, while the tester specifies, automates and executes tests.

C. The test manager plans, monitors and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests.

D. The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester prioritizes and executes the tests.

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Q. 908: Which of the following can be categorized as product risks?

A. Low quality of requirements, design, code and tests.

B. Political problems and delays in especially complex areas in the product.

C. Error-prone areas, potential harm to the user, poor product characteristics.

D. Problems in defining the right requirements, potential failure areas in the software or system.

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Q. 909: Which of the following are typical test exit criteria?

A. Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, schedule, state of defect correction and residual risks.

B. Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, degree of tester independence and product completeness.

C. Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, time to market and product completeness, availability of testable code.

D. Time to market, residual defects, tester qualification, degree of tester independence, thoroughness measures and test cost.

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Q. 911: What is the benefit of independent testing?

A. More work gets done because testers do not disturb the developers all the time.

B. Independent testers tend to be unbiased and find different defects than the developers.

C. Independent testers do not need extra education and training.

D. Independent testers reduce the bottleneck in the incident management process.

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Q. 912: Which of the following would be categorized as project risks?

A. Skill and staff shortages.

B. Poor software characteristics.

C. Failure-prone software delivered.

D. Possible reliability defect (bug).

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Q. 913: As a test manager you are asked for a test summary report. Concerning test activities and according to IEEE 829 Standard, what should you consider in your report?

A. The number of test cases using Black Box techniques.

B. A summary of the major testing activities, events and its status in respect of meeting goals.

C. Overall evaluation of each development work item.

D. Training taken by members of the test team to support the test effort.

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Q. 914: You are a tester in a safety-critical software development project. During execution of a test, you find out that one of your expected results was not achieved. You write an incident report about it. What do you consider to be the most important information to include according to the IEEE Std. 829?

A. Impact, incident description, date and time, your name.

B. Unique id for the report, special requirements needed.

C. Transmitted items, your name and you’re feeling about the defect source.

D. Incident description, environment, expected results.

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Q. 915: From the list below, select the recommended principles for introducing a chosen test tool in an organization?

1. Roll the tool out to the entire organization at the same time.

2. Start with a pilot project.

3. Adapt and improve processes to fit the use of the tool.

4. Provide training and coaching for new users.

5. Let each team decide their own standard ways of using the tool.

6. Monitor that costs do not exceed initial acquisition cost.

7. Gather lessons learned from all teams.

A. 1, 2, 3, 5.

B. 1, 4, 6, 7.

C. 2, 3, 4, 7.

D. 3, 4, 5, 6.

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Q. 916: Which one of the following best describes a characteristic of a keyworddriven test execution tool?

A. A table with test input data, action words, and expected results, controls execution of the system under test.

B. Actions of testers recorded in a script that is rerun several times.

C. Actions of testers recorded in a script that is run with several sets of test input data.

D. The ability to log test results and compare them against the expected results, stored in a text file.

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Q. 917: Which of the following is NOT a goal of a Pilot Project for tool evaluation?

A. To evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices.

B. To determine use, management, storage, and maintenance of the tool and test assets.

C. To assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.

D. To reduce the defect rate in the Pilot Project.

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Q. 918: Below is a list of test efficiency improvement goals a software development and test organization would like to achieve.

Which of these goals would best be supported by a test management tool?

A. To build traceability between requirements, tests, and bugs.

B. To optimize the ability of tests to identify failures.

C. To resolve defects faster.

D. To automate selection of test cases for execution.

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Q. 919: The digital "Rainbow Thermometer" uses 7 colors to show the ambient temperature. Each color spans a range of just 5 Deg. C, with an operating minimum and maximum of minus 5 Deg. C and 30 Deg.C. Which of the following values is LEAST likely to have been identified when applying the boundary value test design technique?

A. 30 Deg. C

B. 0 Deg. C

C. 8 Deg. C

D. 15 Deg.C

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Q. 920: Which of the following are characteristic of test management tools?

a. They support traceability of tests to source documents.

b. They provide an interface to test execution tools.

c. They help to enforce coding standards.

d. They manipulate databases and files to set up test data.

A. a and c

B. b and c

C. a and b

D. b and d

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 911	B
Q. 912	A
Q. 913	B
Q. 914	A
Q. 915	C
Q. 916	A
Q. 917	D
Q. 918	A
Q. 919	C
Q. 920	C

Q. 921: According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?

A. To verify the success of corrective actions.

B. To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed.

C.  To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification.

D. To motivate better unit testing by the programmers.

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Q.922: Which of the following structure-based test design technique would be most likely to be applied to?

1 Boundaries between mortgage interest rate bands.

2 An invalid transition between two different area’s statuses.

3 The business process flow for mortgage approval.

4 Control flow of the program to calculate repayments.

A. 2, 3 and 4

B. 2 and 4

C. 3 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 3

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Q.923: A deviation from the specified or expected behaviour that is visible to end-users is called:

A.  an error

B.  a fault

C.  a failure

D.  a defect

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Q.924: What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?

A. to know when a specific test has finished its execution

B. to ensure that the test case specification is complete

C. to set the criteria used in generating test inputs

D. to determine when to stop testing

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q.925: Maintenance testing is:

A. updating tests when the software has changed

b. testing a released system that has been changed

C. testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need

D. testing to maintain business advantage

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Q.926: Error guessing is best used:

A. after more formal techniques have been applied

B. as the first approach to deriving test cases

C. by inexperienced testers

D. after the system has gone live

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Q.927: For which of the following test cases does test coverage analysis not assign the highest priority?

A. The ones that cover the most important quality risk

B. The ones that cover the requirements

C. The ones that cover conditions
D. The ones that cover the functions

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q.928: Consider the following decision table.

Given this decision table on Car Rental, what is the expected result for the following test cases?

Conditions	Rule 1	Rule 2	Rule 3	Rule 4
Over 23?	F	T	T	T
Clean Driving Record	Don’t Care	F	T	T
On Business?	Don’t Care	Don’t Care	F	T
Actions
Supply Rental Car?	F	F	T	T
Premium Charge?	F	F	F	T

TCI: A 26-year-old on business but with violations or accidents on his driving record

TC2: A 62-year-old tourist with a clean driving record

A. TCI: Don't supply car; TC2: Supply car with premium charge.

B. TCI: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.

C.  TCI: Don't supply car; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.

D. TCI: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Don't supply car.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q.929: Requirement 24.3. A 'Postage Assistant' will calculate the amount of postage due for letters and small packages up to 1 kilogram in weight. The inputs are: the type of item (letter, book or other package) and the weight in grams. Which of the following conform to the required contents of a test case?

A. Test the three types of item to post and three different weights [Req 24.3]

B. Test 1: letter, 10 grams, postage €0.25. Test 2: book, 500 grams, postage €1.00. Test 3: package, 999 gram, postage €2.53 [Req 24.3]

C.  Test 1: letter, 10 grams to Belgium. Test 2: book 500 grams to USA. Test 3: package, 999 grams to South Africa [Req 24.3]

D. Test 1: letter 10 grams, Belgium, postage €0.25. Test 2: package 999 grams to South Africa, postage €2.53

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q.930: Acceptance testing may occur at more than just a single test level. With the exception of:

A. A COTS software product may be acceptance tested when it is installed or integrated.

B. Acceptance testing of the usability of a component may be done during component testing.

C.  Acceptance testing after a change has been released to the user community.
D. Acceptance testing of a new functional enhancement may come before system testing.

Q. 931: Integrity testing involves:

A. The testing of pseudo code

B. Performance testing

C. Alpha testing

D.The final phase of testing prior to deployment

 

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q.932: Testing throughout the project in a three-dimensional sense refers to the following dimensions:

A. Time, Resources, and Risk

B. Verification, Validation, and Defect Reporting

C. Time, Organizational, and Cultural

D. None of the above

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q.933: Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution:

A.  Develop and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally, preparing test harness and writing automated test scripts.

B.  Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and testware.

C.  Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.

D. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q.934 Which of the following is not appropriate for testing interactions between paths?

A.  Path that people are particularly likely to follow

B.  Choices at one menu level or data entry screen can affect the presentation of choices elsewhere

C.  Test reaction to all combinations of valid and invalid inputs

D. Randomly select different paths in each test cycle

 

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q.935: Which of the following is the main purpose of the component build and integration strategy?

A. to ensure that all of the small components are tested

B. to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks

C. to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team

D. to specify how the software should be divided into components

E. to specify which components to combine when, and how many at once

Correct Answers to the Above Questions - Q. 931 to Q 935 are as under:

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 931	D
Q. 932	C
Q. 933	C
Q. 934	C
Q. 935	E
Q. 936
Q. 937
Q. 938
Q. 939
Q. 940