ISTQB - Sample Questions Page3

Q. 501: Which of the following statements is MOST OFTEN true?
A. Source-code inspections are often used in component testing.
B. Component testing searches for defects in programs that are separately testable.
C. Component testing is an important part of user acceptance testing.
D. Component testing aims to expose problems in the interactions between software and hardware components.
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Q. 502: Which of the following is an objective of a pilot project for the introduction of a testing tool?
A. Evaluate testers’ competence to use the tool.
B. Complete the testing of a key project.
C. Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.
D. Discover what the requirements for the tool are.
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Q. 503: Considering the following pseudo-code, calculate the MINIMUM number of test cases for statement coverage, and the MINIMUM number of test cases for decision coverage respectively.
READ A
READ B
READ C
IF C>A THEN
IF C>B THEN
PRINT "C must be smaller than at least one number"
ELSE
PRINT "Proceed to next stage"
ENDIF
ELSE
PRINT "B can be smaller than C"
ENDIF
A. 3, 3.
B. 2, 3.
C. 2, 4.
D. 3, 2.
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Q. 504: Which of the following is determined by the level of product risk identified?
A. Extent of testing.
B. Scope for the use of test automation.
C. Size of the test team.
D. Requirement for regression testing.
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Q. 505: When should testing be stopped?
A. When all the planned tests have been run
B. When time has run out
C. When all faults have been fixed correctly
D. It depends on the risks for the system being tested
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Q. 506: Which of following statements is true? Select ALL correct options Regression testing should be performed:
i Once a month
ii When a defect has been fixed
iii When the test environment has changed
iv When the software has changed
A. ii and iv.
B. ii, iii and iv.
C. i, ii and iii.
D. i and iii.
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Q. 507: The following statements are used to describe the basis for creating test cases using either black or white box techniques:
i Information about how the software is constructed.
ii Models of the system, software or components.
iii Analysis of the test basis documentation.
iv Analysis of the internal structure of the components.
Which combination of the statements describes the basis for black box techniques?
A. ii and iii.
B. ii and iv.
C. i and iv.
D. i and iii.
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Q. 508: Which of the following requirements would be tested by a functional system test?
A. The system must be able to perform its functions for an average of 23 hours 50 mins per day.
B. The system must perform adequately for up to 30 users.
C. The system must allow a user to amend the address of a customer.
D. The system must allow 12,000 new customers per year.
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Q. 509: Why are static testing and dynamic testing described as complementary?
A. Because they share the aim of identifying defects and find the same types of defect.
B. Because they have different aims and differ in the types of defect they find.
C. Because they have different aims but find the same types of defect.
D. Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in the types of defect they find.
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Q. 510: Which of the following are valid objectives for incident reports?
i. Provide developers and other parties with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation and correction as necessary.
ii. Provide ideas for test process improvement.
iii. Provide a vehicle for assessing tester competence.
iv. Provide testers with a means of tracking the quality of the system under test.
A. i, ii, iii.
B. i, ii, iv.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. ii, iii, iv.

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 501	B
Q. 502	C
Q. 503	A
Q. 504	A
Q. 505	D
Q. 506	B
Q. 507	A
Q. 508	C
Q. 509	D
Q. 510	B

Q. 511: What is the objective of debugging?
i To localise a defect.
ii To fix a defect.
iii To show value.
iv To increase the range of testing.
A. i, iii.
B. ii, iii, iv.
C. ii, iv.
D. i, ii.
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Q. 512: Consider the following techniques. Which are static and which are dynamic techniques?
i. Equivalence Partitioning.
ii. Use Case Testing.
iii.Data Flow Analysis.
iv.Exploratory Testing.
v. Decision Testing.
vi Inspections.
A. i-iv are static, v-vi are dynamic.
B. iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic.
C. ii, iii and vi are static, i, iv and v are dynamic.
D. vi is static, i-v are dynamic.
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Q. 513: Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?
Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
ENDIF
A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
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Q. 514: Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing?
A. Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.
B. Testing is isolated from development.
C. Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
D. Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased.

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Q. 515: Which activity in the fundamental test process includes evaluation of the testability of the requirements and system?
A. Test analysis and design.
B. Test planning and control.
C. Test closure.
D. Test implementation and execution.
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Q. 516: In which of the following orders would the phases of a formal review usually occur?
A. Planning, preparation, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
B. Kick off, planning, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
C. Preparation, planning, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
D. Planning, kick off, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
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Q. 517: For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns of Configuration Management?
i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.
A. i, iv, vi.
B. ii, iii, v.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. iv, v, vi.
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Q. 518: Which of the following defines the scope of maintenance testing?
A. The coverage of the current regression pack.
B. The size and risk of any change(s) to the system.
C. The time since the last change was made to the system.
D. Defects found at the last regression test run.
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Q. 519: What is typically the MOST important reason to use risk to drive testing efforts?
A. Because testing everything is not feasible.
B. Because risk-based testing is the most efficient approach to finding bugs.
C. Because risk-based testing is the most effective way to show value.
D. Because software is inherently risky.

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Q. 520: Which of the following are valid objectives for testing?
i.To find defects.
ii.To gain confidence in the level of quality.
iii.To identify the cause of defects.
iv.To prevent defects.
A. i,ii, and iii.
B. ii, iii and iv.
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i,iii and iv.

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 511	D
Q. 512	B
Q. 513	B
Q. 514	D
Q. 515	A
Q. 516	D
Q. 517	A
Q. 518	B
Q. 519	A
Q. 520	C

Q. 521: Which of the following will NOT be detected by static analysis?
A. Parameter type mismatches.
B. Errors in requirements.
C. Undeclared variables.
D. Uncalled functions.
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Q. 522: Which of the following would be a valid measure of test progress?
A. Number of undetected defects.
B. Total number of defects in the product.
C. Number of test cases not yet executed.
D. Effort required to fix all defects.

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Q. 523: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?
A. £4000; £5000; £5500.
B. £32001; £34000; £36500.
C. £28000; £28001; £32001.
D. £4000; £4200; £5600.
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Q. 524: Which of the following test activities can be automated?
i Reviews and inspections.
ii Metrics gathering.
iii Test planning.
iv Test execution.
v Data generation.
A. i, iii, iv.
B. i, ii, iii.
C. ii, iv, v.
D. ii, iii, v.
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Q. 525: In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the test design work to be begun?
A. After the software or system has been produced.
B. During development.
C. As early as possible.
D. During requirements analysis.
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Q. 526: Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
A. Expected outcomes are defined by the software's behaviour
B. Expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
C. Expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
D. Expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
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Q. 527: Functional system testing is:
A. Testing that the system functions with other systems
B. Testing that the components that comprise the system function together
C. Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
D. Testing the system performs functions within specified response times
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Q. 528: Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
A. Operating systems
B. Test documentation
C. Live data
D. User requirement documents
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Q. 529: What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?
A. Setting up forms and databases
B. Analysing metrics and improving processes
C. Writing the documents to be inspected
D. Time spent on the document outside the meeting
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Q. 530: Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?
A. Black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
B. White box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
C. Cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
D. Black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 521	B
Q. 522	C
Q. 523	D
Q. 524	C
Q. 525	A
Q. 526	A
Q. 527	C
Q. 528	C
Q. 529	C
Q. 530	A

Q. 531: Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:
A. To find faults in the software
B. To prove that the software has no faults
C. To give confidence in the software
D. To find performance problems
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Q. 532: Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
A. Component testing
B. Non-functional system testing
C. User acceptance testing
D. Maintenance testing
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Q. 533: What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:
A. Walkthrough
B. Inspection
C. Management review
D. Post project review
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Q. 534: Maintenance means
A. Updating tests when the software has changed
B. Testing a released system that has been changed
C. Testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
D. Testing to maintain business advantage
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Q. 535: A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:-
i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities
A. I,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
C. ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
D. i,ii are false and iii , iv are true
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Q. 536: All of the following might be done during unit testing except
A. Desk check
B. Manual support testing
C. Walkthrough
D. Compiler based testing
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Q. 537: Which of the following is a requirement of an effective software environment?
I. Ease of use
II. Capacity for incremental implementation
III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project
IV. Inclusion of advanced tools
A.I, II &III
B.I, II &IV
C.II, III&IV
D.I, III&IV
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Q. 538: When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as:
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Decision table
D. Hybrid analysis
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Q. 539: The bug tracking system will need to capture these phases for each bug.
I. Phase injected
II. Phase detected
III. Phase fixed
IV. Phase removed
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, III and IV
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Q. 540: Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the impact of proposed software modifications?
A. Baseline identification
B. Configuration auditing
C. Change control
D. Version control

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 531	B
Q. 532	D
Q. 533	B
Q. 534	B
Q. 535	B
Q. 536	B
Q. 537	A
Q. 538	A
Q. 539	B
Q. 540	C

Q. 541: A type of integration testing in which software elements, hardware elements,or both are combined all at once into a component or an overall system, rather than in stages.
A. System Testing
B. Big-Bang Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. Unit Testing
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Q. 542: You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says that due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days after the due date. You can not change the resources( work hours, test tools, etc.) What steps you will take to be able to finish the testing in time.
A. Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so that testing activity will be finish in time.
B. Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip going to occur
C. Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testing
D. Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided
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Q. 543: There is one application, which runs on a single terminal. There is another application that works on multiple terminals. What are the test techniques you will use on the second application that you would not do on the first application?
A. Integrity, Response time
B. Concurrency test, Scalability
C. Update & Rollback, Response time
D. Concurrency test, Integrity
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Q. 544: Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage? It can be applied to human input, input via interfaces to a system, or interface parameters in integration testing.
A. Error Guessing
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Decision Table testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
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Q. 545: In practice, which Life Cycle model may have more, fewer or different levels of development and testing, depending on the project and the software product. For example, there may be component integration testing after component testing, and system integration testing after system testing.
A. Water Fall Model
B.V-Model
C. Spiral Model
D. RAD Model
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Q. 546: Which of the following statements is true about white-box testing?
A. It includes functional testing
B. It includes loop testing
C. It is usually done after black-box testing
D. It is usually done during the integration testing phase
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Q. 547: "The tracing of requirements for a test level through the layers of a test documentation" done by
A. Horizontal tracebility
B. Depth tracebility
C. Vertical tracebility
D. Horizontal & Vertical tracebilities
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Q. 548: ‘Entry criteria’ should address questions such as
I. Are the necessary documentation, design and requirements information available that will allow testers to operate the system and judge correct behavior.
II. Is the test environment-lab, hardware, software and system administration support ready?
III. Those conditions and situations that must prevail in the testing process to allow testing to continue effectively and efficiently.
IV. Are the supporting utilities, accessories and prerequisites available in forms that testers can use
A. I, II and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I, II, III and IV
D. II, III and IV.
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Q. 549: Big bang approach is related to
A. Regression testing
B. Inter system testing
C. Re-testing
D. Integration testing
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Q. 550: Which of the following statements is true about a software verification and validation program?
I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.
II. It provides management with insights into the state of a software project.
III. It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.
IV. It is executed in parallel with software development activities.
A. I, II&III
B.II, III&IV
C.I, II&IV
D.I, III&IV

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 541	B
Q. 542	C
Q. 543	B
Q. 544	D
Q. 545	B
Q. 546	B
Q. 547	A
Q. 548	A
Q. 549	D
Q. 550	C

Q. 551: An expert based test estimation is also known as
A. Narrow band Delphi
B. Wide band Delphi
C. Bespoke Delphi
D. Robust Delphi
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Q. 552: A test harness is a
A. A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing
B. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
C. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test
D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test
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Q. 553: ‘Be bugging’ is known as
A. Preventing the defects by inspection
B. Fixing the defects by debugging
C. Adding known defects by seeding
D. A process of fixing the defects by tester
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Q. 554: A project manager has been transferred to a major software development project that is in the implementation phase. The highest priority for this project  manager should be to
A. Establish a relationship with the customer
B. Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan
C. Modify the project’ s organizational structure to meet the manager’s management style
D. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace

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Q. 555: "This life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and budget risks" This statement is best suited for
A. Water fall model
B. Spiral model
C. Incremental model
D. V-Model
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Q. 556: Which of the following characteristics is primarily associated with software reusability?
A. The extent to which the software can be used in other applications
B. The extent to which the software can be used by many different users
C. The capability of the software to be moved to a different platform
D. The capability of one system to be coupled with another system
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Q. 557: Which of the following functions is typically supported by a software quality information system?
I. Record keeping
II. System design
III. Evaluation scheduling
IV. Error reporting
A.I, II&III
B.II, III &IV
C.I, III &IV
D.I, II & IV
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Q. 558: System test can begin when?
I. The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on the results to the system test phase entry meeting
II. The development team provides software to the test team 3 business days prior to starting of the system testing
III. All components are under formal, automated configuration and release management control
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
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Q. 559: ‘Defect Density’ calculated in terms of
A. The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or the system
B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any other means after wards
C. The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found by a test phase
D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system
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Q. 560: Test charters are used in ________ testing
A. Exploratory testing
B. Usability testing
C. Component testing
D. Maintainability testing

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 551	B
Q. 552	C
Q. 553	C
Q. 554	B
Q. 555	D
Q. 556	A
Q. 557	C
Q. 558	D
Q. 559	A
Q. 560	A

Q. 561: Item transmittal report is also known as
A. Incident report
B. Release note
C. Review report
D. Audit report
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Q. 562: COTS is known as
A. Commercial off the shelf software
B. Compliance of the software
C. Change control of the software
D. Capable off the shelf software
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Q. 563: Change request should be submitted through development or program management. A change request must be written and should include the following criteria.
I. Definition of the change
II. Documentation to be updated
III. Name of the tester or developer
IV. Dependencies of the change request.
A. I, III and IV
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II and IV
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Q. 564: Change X requires a higher level of authority than Change Y in which of the following pairs? Change X Change Y
A. Code in development Code in production
B. Specifications during requirements analysis Specifications during systems test
C. Documents requested by the technical development group Documents requested by customers
D. A product distributed to several sites A product with a single user
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Q. 565: Cause effect graphing is related to the standard
A. BS7799
B. BS 7925/2
C. ISO/IEC 926/1
D. ISO/IEC 2382/1
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Q. 566: The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program during system testing is to
A. Find bugs in the program
B. Check the technical accuracy of the document
C. Ensure the ease of use of the document
D. Ensure that the program is the latest version
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Q. 567: During the testing of a module tester ‘X’ finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it’s not a bug. What ‘X’ should do?
A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer.
B. Retest the module and confirm the bug
C. Assign the same bug to another developer
D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility
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Q. 568: One of the more daunting challenges of managing a test project is that so many dependencies converge at test execution. One missing configuration file or hard ware device can render all your test results meaning less. You can end up with an entire platoon of testers sitting around for days. Who is responsible for this incident?
A. Test managers faults only
B. Test lead faults only
C. Test manager and project manager faults
D. Testers faults only

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Q. 569: You are a tester for testing a large system. The system data model is very large with many attributes and there are a lot of inter dependencies with in the fields. What steps would you use to test the system and also what are the efforts of the test you have taken on the test plan
A. Improve super vision, More reviews of artifacts or program means stage containment of the defects.
B. Extend the test plan so that you can test all the inter dependencies
C. Divide the large system in to small modules and test the functionality
D. Test the interdependencies first, after that check the system as a whole
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 570: Testing of software used to convert data from existing systems for use in replacement systems
A. Data driven testing

B. Migration testing
C. Configuration testing
D. Back to back testing

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 561	B
Q. 562	A
Q. 563	D
Q. 564	D
Q. 565	B
Q. 566	B
Q. 567	D
Q. 568	A
Q. 569	A
Q. 570	B

Q. 571: A test manager wants to use the resources available for the automated testing of a web application. The best choice is

A. Test automater, web specialist, DBA, test lead
B. Tester, test automater, web specialist, DBA
C. Tester, test lead, test automater, DBA
D. Tester, web specialist, test lead, test automater

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 572: From the below given choices, which one is the ‘Confidence testing’

A. Sanity testing
B. System testing
C. Smoke testing
D. Regression testing

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Q. 573: Consider the following statements

i. A incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. Incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. The final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. The incident record does not include information on test environments
v. Incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test

A. ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
B. i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
C. i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
D. i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
E. i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

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Q. 575: Who OFTEN performs system testing and acceptance testing, respectively?

A. Senior programmers and professional testers
B. Technical system testers and potential customers
C. Independent test team and users of the system
D. Development team and customers of the system

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Q. 576: Which test levels are USUALLY included in the common type of V-model?

A. Integration testing, system testing, acceptance testing, and regression testing
B. Component testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing
C. Incremental testing, exhaustive testing, exploratory testing, and data driven testing
D. Alpha testing, beta testing, black-box testing, and white-box testing

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Q. 577: Which general testing principles are characterized by the descriptions below?

W) Early testing
X) Defect clustering
Y) Pesticide paradox
Z) Absence-of-errors fallacy

1) Testing should start at the beginning of the project
2) Conformance to requirements and fitness for use
3) Small Number of modules contain the most defects
4) Test cases must be regularly renewed and revised

A. W1, X2, Y3, and Z4
B. W1, X3, Y4, and Z2
C. W2, X3, Y1, and Z4
D. W1, X4, Y2, and Z3

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Q. 578: What should be taken into account to determine when to stop testing?

I. Technical risk
II. Business risk
III Project constraints
IV Product documentation

A. I and II are true. III and N are false
B. III is true, I, II, and IV are false
C. I, II, and IV are true; III is false
D. I, II, and III are true, IV is false

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Q. 579: In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exam.

a) 22,23,26
b) 21,39,40
c) 29,30,31
d) 0,15,22

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Q. 580: Which of the following describe test control actions that may occur during testing?

I. Setting an entry criterion that developers must retest fixes before fixes are accepted into a build.

II. Changing the test schedule due to availability of a test environment.

III. Re-prioritizing tests when development delivers software late

A. I only

B. II only

C. I, II and III

D. I and III

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 571	B
Q. 572	C
Q. 573	B
Q. 574	C
Q. 575	C
Q. 576	B
Q. 577	B
Q. 578	D
Q. 579	C
Q. 580	C

Q. 581: What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

	Rule 1	Rule 2	Rule 3	Rule 4
Conditions
Indian Resident?	False	True	True	True
Age between 18-55	Don’t Care	False	True	True
Married	Don’t Care	Don’t Care	False	True
Actions
Issue Membership?	False	False	True	True
Offer 10% discount?	False	False	True	False

A.TC1: Anand is a 32 year old married, residing in Kolkatta.
B.TC3: Attapattu is a 65 year old married person, residing in Colombo.

A. A – Issue membership, 10% discount, B–Issue membership, offer no discount.
B. A – Don’t Issue membership, B – Don’t offer discount.
C. A – Issue membership, no discount, B – Don’t Issue membership.
D. A – Issue membership, no discount, B- Issue membership with 10% discount.

Evaluation of different options:

	Rule 1	Rule 2	Rule 3	Rule 4
Conditions
Indian Resident?	False	True	True	True
Age between 18-55	Don’t Care	False	True	True
Married	Don’t Care	Don’t Care	False	True
Actions
Issue Membership?	False	False	True	True
Offer 10% discount?	False	False	True	False

Explanation:
For TC1: follow the path in green color
(The person is Indian resident, so select only ‘True’ options.
The person is aged between 18-55, so select only ‘True’
The person is a married, so again select only ‘True’
For this person, the actions under ‘Rule 4′ will be applied. That is, issue membership and no discount)

For TC3: follow the path in blue color
(The person is not Indian resident, so select only ‘False’ (under Rule 1)
The person is not aged between 18-55. No need to select any path, as it is written “Don’t care”.
The person is married. No need to select any path, as it is written “Don’t care”.
For this person, the actions under ‘Rule1′ will be applied, That is, Don’t issue membership and no discount.) 

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 582: Which of the following is false?

A. Incidents should always be fixed.
B. An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
C. Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
D. An incident can be raised against documentation.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 583: Which of the following is false?

A. In a system two different failures may have different severities.
B. A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
C. A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
D. Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 584: A testing process that is conducted to test new features after regression testing of previous features.

A. Operational testing
B. Progressive testing
C. Recovery testing
D. Regression testing

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 585: Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults?

A. They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.

B. They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.

C. Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.

D. Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 586: What is non-functional testing?

A. Testing an integrated system to verify that it meets specified requirements

B. Testing the internal structure of the system to ensure it’s built correctly

C. Testing the way the system works without regard to the level of test

D. Testing characteristics such as usability or reliability

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 587: Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

A. Boundary value analysis
B. Usability testing
C. Performance testing
D. Security testing

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 588: Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Decision tables are useful when dealing with multiple inputs that do not interact.

II. The strength of a decision table is that it creates combinations of inputs that might not otherwise been evaluated.

III. Decision tables are useful when trying to capture system requirements that contain logical conditions.

IV. Each column of a decision table corresponds to a business rule that defines a unique combination of conditions.

A. II, III and IV

B. I and IV

C. I, II and III

D. I and III

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 589: Which of the following are metrics (measurements) that a test group may use to monitor progress?

I. Subjective confidence of the testers in the product

II. The number of testers currently testing

III. Percentage of planned test cases prepared

IV. Defects found and fixed

A. I only

B. I, III and IV

C. I, II and IV

D. II and IV

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 590: A test case has which of the following elements?

A. A test environment description and test instructions.

B. A set of inputs, execution preconditions, and expected outcomes.

C. A test plan, test inputs, and logging instructions.

D. Execution instructions and a function description to determine correct outcome.

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 581	C
Q. 582	A
Q. 583	B
Q. 584	B
Q. 585	A
Q. 586	D
Q. 587	A
Q. 588	A
Q. 589	B
Q. 590	B

Q. 591: Which of the following is a fundamental principle of software defect prevention?

A. Software quality engineering must evaluate all errors.
B. A balance of white-box and black-box testing is necessary.
C. A single root cause taxonomy should be used by all projects.
D. Feedback to the individuals who introduced the defect is essential.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 592: When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that

A. Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and are likely to make the system fail

B. Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have been considered in design

C. Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product

D. Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone portions of the system

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 593: Which of the following statements about static analysis is FALSE?

A. Static analysis can find defects that are likely to be missed by dynamic testing.

B. Static analysis is a good way to force failures in the software.

C. Static analysis tools examine code or other types of product documentation.

D. Static analysis can result in cost saving by finding bugs early.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 594: Which of the following statements is true about white-box testing?

A. It includes functional testing.
B. It includes loop testing.
C. It is usually done after black-box testing.
D. It is usually done during the integration testing phase.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 595: A set of behavioral and performance requirements which, in aggregate, determine the functional properties of a software system.

A. Functional requirement
B. Functional specifications
C. Functional test cases

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 596: Which of the following provides the test group with the ability to reference all documents and software items unambiguously?

A. Agile testing methodology

B. Effective use of tools

C. Configuration management

D. Requirements traceability matrix

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 597: Which of the following is not a job responsibility of a software tester?

A. Identifying test cases
B. Preparing test data
C. Executing tests
D. Writing the functional specifications

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q.598: Which of the following are Black Box test design techniques?

I. Boundary value analysis

II. Branch condition testing

III. Equivalence partitioning

IV. State transition testing.

A. I, II, III and IV

B. I and III

C. III and IV

D. I, III and IV

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 599: Which of the following are test management tool capabilities?

I. The enforcement of coding standards.

II. Support for requirements traceability activities.

III. The generation of testing progress reports

IV. Generation of test process improvement information.

A. II, III and IV

B. I and II

C. I, III and IV

D. III and IV

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 600: Errors that are cosmetic in nature are usually assigned a ______ severity level.

A. Fatal (Severity)
B. Low (Severity)
C. Serious (Severity)
D. Not Serious at all

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 591	D
Q. 592	C
Q. 593	B
Q. 594	B
Q. 595	B
Q. 596	C
Q. 597	D
Q. 598	D
Q. 599	A
Q. 600	B

Q. 601: Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The objective of testing is always to find defects by causing failures when executing.

B. Test activities end after the tests are executed and deviations are documented.

C. The true level of quality cannot be learned by dynamic testing.

D. Both dynamic and static testing can be used to achieve similar objectives.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 602: Which activities are included in the Test Analysis and Design phase?

A. Design of test cases that verify that user functions are correct.

B. The design of test cases for testing the internal structure of the system.

C. Test case design that is based on an analysis of the behavior of the component without reference to its internal workings.

D. The design of test cases to ensure that the organization has defined exactly what the customer wants.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 603: Which type of document might be reviewed at a Review/Inspection session?

A. Employee performance review

B. Test Plan

C. Project Status Report

D. Defect Tracking Form

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 604: Which of the following statements are true about component testing?

I. Structural testing is rarely done during component testing.

II. The test basis for component testing is often the code.

III. Defects are tracked throughout component testing.

IV. Robustness testing may be a part of component testing.

V. The component testing environment should be as much like production as possible.

A. I, II, III and IV

B. II
C. II and IV

D. I, III and V

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 605: Which activities are included in Test Analysis and Design? TOO SIMILAR TO 56????

A. Developing test procedures, identifying test data, developing test harnesses, identifying required tools.

B. Reviewing the test basis, identifying test conditions, identifying test data, and designing the environment set-up.

C. Reviewing requirements, determining the test approach, designing and prioritizing test cases.

D. Evaluating test object testability, verifying the test environment set up, identifying required infrastructure.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 606: Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A. Testers cannot help developers improve their skills through good defect documentation.

B. People align their plans with objectives set by management if they understand them.

C. Testing is a constructive activity when seen in the management of product risks.

D. Avoiding the author bias is a good reason to have an independent test group.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 607: Which of the following are major test documents? (choose the best answer)

1) Test plan

2) Test case

3) Test design

4) Test procedure

5) Defect report

A. 1 and 2

B. 1, 3, and 4

C. 1, 3, 4, and 5 
D. All the above

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 608: What do walkthroughs, technical reviews and inspections have in common?

I. They have defect finding as an objective.

II. Pre-meeting preparation is required.

III. They can be performed as a “peer review”.

IV. The meeting is led by a trained moderator.

A. I, II and III

B. III and IV
C. I and III

D. II, III and IV

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 609: Which of the following is a risk of using a test execution tool based on record and playback?

A. The ability to run automated scripts unattended may require increased hardware capacity.

B. Testers may be tempted to create too many automated test scripts.

C. Manual testers may be replaced by the tool and not be available when needed.

D. Automated scripts may be unstable when encountering unexpected events.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 610: Which of the following statements are true for the equivalence partitioning test technique?

I. Divides possible inputs into classes that have the same behavior

II. Can be used to create both positive and negative test cases

III. Makes use of only positive test cases for the equivalence partitions

IV. Must always include at least two values from every equivalence partition

V. Can be used only for input testing

A. I and II
B. I, II and V

C. I, III and IV

D. I and V

Question No.
Correct Answer
Q. 601
D
Q. 602
C
Q. 603
B
Q. 604
C
Q. 605
B
Q. 606
A
Q. 607
D
Q. 608
C
Q. 609
D
Q. 610
A

Q. 611: The use of test automation would provide the best return on investment for which of the following?

A. Unit testing
B. Usability testing
C. Regression testing
D. Acceptance testing

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 612: Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Component integration testing tests the interactions between different systems and is done after component testing.

B. Component integration testing tests the interactions between different systems and may be done after system testing.

C. Component integration testing tests the interactions between software components and is done during acceptance testing.

D. Component integration testing tests the interactions between software components and is done after component testing.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 613: The following code segment contains a potential "divide by 0" error.

J=50
K=1
while (N>10) and (N-=<=10) loop
M [K] = J/N
K = K + 1
1 -N = N
end loop

Which of the following is the most effective way of detecting this error?

A. Boundary testing
B. Condition testing
C. Compilation of the source code
D. Source code inspection

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 614: Which of the following is a fundamental principle of software defect prevention?

A. Software quality engineering must evaluate all errors.
B. A balance of white-box and black-box testing is necessary.
C. A single root cause taxonomy should be used by all projects.
D. Feedback to the individuals who introduced the defect is essential.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 615: The best time to influence the quality of a system design is in the _______.

A. Planning Phase
B. Analysis Phase
C. Design Phase
D. Testing Phase

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 616: IEEE stands for:

A. Information Engineering Endeavoring to Excel
B. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
C. Institute of Education for E-commerce Entrepreneurs
D. Individual Excellence in Engineering Enterprises

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 617: Which of the following BEST describes the task partition between test manager and tester?

A. The test manager plans, organizes and creates the test specifications, while the tester implements, prioritizes and executes tests.

B. The test manager plans, monitors and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs, executes tests and evaluates the results.

C. The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and controls their use.

D. The test manager reviews tests developed by others, while the tester selects tools to support testing.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 618: Which of the following might be a concern of a test group relying on a test design tool?

A. The tool may not generate sufficient tests for verifying all aspects of the test object.

B. The tool’s playback function may not work the same for all testers’ workstations.

C. The tool might take too much time to run, putting the schedule at jeopardy.

D. The tool’s test logs may require that the test group upgrade the server memory 

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>> 

Q. 619: Which of the following statements about the benefits of deriving test cases from use cases are true?

I. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for system and acceptance testing.

II. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful only for automated testing

III. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for unit testing.

IV. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for testing the interaction and interference between different components.

A. I

B. I and II.

C. III
D. I and IV

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 620: In a formal inspection process, which is TRUE?

A. Failures can be found when the correct inspectors are included.

B. Metrics are included in the inspection process.

C. The checking rate is related to the number of pages of the inspected document.

D. Its purpose is to get some benefit in an inexpensive way.

Correct Answers to the Earlier Questions - Q. 611 to Q 620 are as under:

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 611	C
Q. 612	D
Q. 613	D
Q. 614	D
Q. 615	A
Q. 616	B
Q. 617	B
Q. 618	A
Q. 619	D
Q. 620	B

Q.621: The test strategy that is informal and non structured is:

A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Validation strategy
C. White box testing
D. Ad hoc testing

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q.622: The test strategy that involves understanding the program logic is:

A. Equivalence partitioning
B. White box testing
C. Black box testing
D. Boundary strategy

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 623: Which of the following details would most likely be included in an incident report?

I. Identification of the test item (configuration item) and environment.

II. Development process characteristics such as organization stability and test process used.

III. A review of the test basis, such as requirements, architecture, design, interfaces.

IV. Scope or degree of the impact on the stakeholders’ interests.

A. I, II and III.

B. II and III.
C. I and IV

D. III and IV.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 624: What is the main focus of System Testing?

A. Communications between the system and other systems.

B. Ensuring that the system is fit for business purpose.

C. The defined behavior of the whole system or product.

D. The defined behavior of the whole system or product.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 625: Which of the following is NOT a test planning activity?

A. Selecting test conditions based on an analysis of the test object.

B. Scheduling test analysis and design, implementation and execution activities.

C. Assigning resources for the activities to be performed.

D. Making decisions about which roles will perform the test activities and setting the level of detail for the test procedures.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q.626: The programs send bad data to devices, ignore error codes coming back, and try to use devices that are busy or aren't there. This is a:

A. Calculation error
B. Functional error
C. Hardware error
D. System error
E. User Interface error

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 627: Which of the following are included as part of static testing (manual and automated)?

A. Inspections, execution of the software, and walkthroughs.

B. Inspections, walkthroughs, and comparison of expected to actual results.

C. Inspection of work products and analysis of software artifacts using tools.

D. Walkthroughs, simulation, and defect tracking.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q.628: If a system is not functioning as documented and the data is not corrupted. What priority and measure are assigned?

A. Priority 1: Critical
B. Priority 2: High
C. Priority 3: Medium
D. Priority 4: Low

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q.629: A testing process that is conducted to test new features after regression testing of previous features.

A. Operational testing
B. Progressive testing
C. Recovery testing
D. Regression testing

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q.630: Which of the following are major test documents? (choose the best answer)

1) Test plan
2) Test case
3) Test design
4) Test procedure
5) Defect report

A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 3, and 4
C. 1, 3, 4, and 5 
D. All of the above

Correct Answers to the Earlier Questions - Q. 621 to Q 630 are as under:

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 621	D
Q. 622	B
Q. 623	C
Q. 624	C
Q. 625	A
Q. 626	C
Q. 627	C
Q. 628	C
Q. 629	B
Q. 630	D

Q. 631: For the following piece of code, how many test cases are needed to get 100% statement coverage?

Procedure X

Read (Color) // Input color from user

IF (Color == “Red”) THEN

Call Roses(Color)

ELSEIF (Color == “Blue”) THEN

Call Violets(Color)

ELSE

PRINT “User is no Shakespeare”

SaveToDatabase(Color)

End Procedure X

A. 5 
B. 3

C. 1

D. 2

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 632: What is the actual and potential result when a human being makes a mistake while writing code?

I. A bug

II. A failure

III. A fault

IV. An error

V. A defect

A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, III and IV

C. V only

D. II, III and IV

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 633:  What test document contains all the information about a specific test case, including requirements and the modules to be tested?

A. Test plan 
B. Test case specification

C. Test design specification

D. Test procedure

E. Defect report

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 634: Even though a test that once revealed many defects is part of the regression suite, no new test cases have been created for the module under test in a long time. What test principle is the QA team forgetting?

A. Absence-of-errors fallacy

B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox

D. Early testing 

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>> 

Q. 635: Which best describes an analytical approach to testing?

A. Testing is directed to areas of greatest risk.
B. Testers study industry standards and base their testing on that analysis.

C. Test analysis, execution and evaluation are concurrent tasks.

D. ISO 9126 is used to guide the non-functional testing effort.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 636: Which of the following are most likely to enhance the formal review process?

I. Review software work products as soon as they are available and reasonably mature.

II. Ensure that reviewers have clear, predefined objectives.

III. Exclude customers, managers, and outside experts to minimize impact on problem solving.

IV. Make use of checklists during the review to drive the process and aid reviewers.

V. Conduct reviews just before coding and dynamic testing begins to find defects early and minimize costs of extra reviews.

A. I, III and V

B. II, III and IV

C. II, IV and V 
D. II and IV

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 637: Which of the following is TRUE of Alpha Testing?

A. It is performed by potential or existing customers.
B. It also referred to as “field testing”.

C. It is performed by customers at their own locations.

D. Developers execute the tests.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 638: Which of the following are general risks of using test-support tools during the testing process?

I. Underestimating the amount of time needed to learn the tool.

II. Ease of access to information about tests will be decreased.

III. There will be an increase in repetitive work for testers.

IV. Having unrealistic expectations for test-support tools.

V. Using test-support tools when manual testing would better serve.

A. I and V 
B. I, IV and V

C. III, IV and V

D. I and IV

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 639: Which of the following is a dynamic analysis tool?

A. Test comparator

B. Database model checker

C. Coverage measurement tool 
D. Memory leak detector

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>> 

Q. 640: Which of the following statements are TRUE?

I. Regression testing and acceptance testing are alternative terms for the same thing.

II. Regression tests show that all faults have been resolved.

III. Regression tests are a good candidate for automation.

IV. Regression tests are executed to determine if side-effects have been introduced through changes to the code.

V. Regression tests are primarily performed in integration testing.

A. I, III, IV and V. 
B. III and IV.

C. I, III and V.

D. II and V.

Correct Answers to the Earlier Questions - Q. 631 to Q 640 are as under:

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 631	B
Q. 632	A
Q. 633	B
Q. 634	B
Q. 635	B
Q. 636	B
Q. 637	A
Q. 638	A
Q. 639	A
Q. 640	B

Q. 641: A company recently purchased a commercial off-the-shelf application to automate their bill paying process. They now plan to run an acceptance test against the package prior to putting it into production. 

Which of the following is their most likely reason for testing?
A. To build confidence in the application.
B. To detect bugs in the application.
C. To gather evidence for a lawsuit.
D. To train the users.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 642: According to the ISTQB Glossary, the word 'bug' is synonymous with which of the following words?
A. Incident
B. Defect
C. Mistake
D. Error
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 643: According to the ISTQB Glossary, a risk relates to which of the following?
A. Negative feedback to the tester.
B. Negative consequences that will occur.
C. Negative consequences that could occur.
D. Negative consequences for the test object.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 644: Ensuring that test design starts during the requirements definition phase is important to enable which of the following test objectives?
A. Preventing defects in the system.
B. Finding defects through dynamic testing.
C. Gaining confidence in the system.
D. Finishing the project on time.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 645: A test team consistently finds between 90% and 95% of the defects present in the system under test. While the test manager understands that this is a good defect-detection percentage for her test team and industry, senior management and executives remain disappointed in the test group, saying that the test team misses too many bugs. Given that the users are generally happy with the system and that the failures which have occurred have generally been low impact, which of the following testing principles is most likely to help the test manager explain to these managers and executives why some defects are likely to be missed?
A. Exhaustive testing is impossible
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Absence-of-errors fallacy
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 646: According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?
A. To verify the success of corrective actions.
B. To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed.
C. To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification.
D. To motivate better unit testing by the programmers.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 647: Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships between testers and developers?
A. Understanding what managers value about testing.
B. Explaining test results in a neutral fashion.
C. Identifying potential customer work-arounds for bugs.
D. Promoting better quality software whenever possible.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 648: Which of the statements below is the best assessment of how the test principles apply across the test life cycle?
A. Test principles only affect the preparation for testing.
B. Test principles only affect test execution activities.
C. Test principles affect the early test activities such as review.
D. Test principles affect activities throughout the test life cycle.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 649: What are good practices for testing within the development life cycle?
A. Early test analysis and design.
B. Different test levels are defined with specific objectives.
C. Testers will start to get involved as soon as coding is done.
D. A and B above.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 650: Which option best describes objectives for test levels with a life cycle model?
A. Objectives should be generic for any test level.
B. Objectives are the same for each test level.
C. The objectives of a test level don't need to be defined in advance.
D. Each level has objectives specific to that level.

Correct Answers to the Earlier Questions - Q. 641 to Q 650 are as under:

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 641	A
Q. 642	B
Q. 643	C
Q. 644	A
Q. 645	A
Q. 646	C
Q. 647	B
Q. 648	D
Q. 649	D
Q. 650	D

Q. 651: Which of the following is a test type?
A. Component testing
B. Functional testing
C. System testing
D. Acceptance testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 652: Which of the following is a non-functional quality characteristic?
A. Feasibility
B. Usability
C. Maintenance
D. Regression
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 653: Which of these is a functional test?
A. Measuring response time on an on-line booking system.
B. Checking the effect of high volumes of traffic in a call-center system.
C. Checking the on-line bookings screen information and the database contents against the information on the letter to the customers.
D. Checking how easy the system is to use.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 654: Which of the following is a true statement regarding the process of fixing emergency changes?
A. There is no time to test the change before it goes live, so only the best developers should do this work and should not involve testers as they slow down the process.
B. Just run the retest of the defect actually fixed.
C. Always run a full regression test of the whole system in case other parts of the system have been adversely affected.
D. Retest the changed area and then use risk assessment to decide on a reasonable subset of the whole regression test to run in case other parts of the system have been adversely affected.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 655: A regression test:
A. Is only run once.
B. Will always be automated.
C. Will check unchanged areas of the software to see if they have been affected.
D. Will check changed areas of the software to see if they have been affected.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 656: Non-functional testing includes:
A. Testing to see where the system does not function correctly.
B. Testing the quality attributes of the system including reliability and usability.
C. Gaining user approval for the system.
D. Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 657: Which of the following artifacts can be examined by using review techniques?
A. Software code
B. Requirements specification
C. Test designs
D. All of the above
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 658: Which statement about the function of a static analysis tool is true?
A. Gives quality information about the code without executing it.
B. Checks expected results against actual results.
C. Can detect memory leaks.
D. Gives information about what code has and has not been exercised.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 659: Which is not a type of review?
A. Walkthrough
B. Inspection
C. Informal review
D. Management approval
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 660: What statement about reviews is true?
A. Inspections are led by a trained moderator, whereas technical reviews are not necessarily.
B. Technical reviews are led by a trained leader, inspections are not.
C. In a walkthrough, the author does not attend.
D. Participants for a walkthrough always need to be thoroughly trained.

Correct Answers to the Earlier Questions - Q. 651 to Q 660 are as under:

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 651	B
Q. 652	B
Q. 653	C
Q. 654	D
Q. 655	C
Q. 656	B
Q. 657	D
Q. 658	A
Q. 659	D
Q. 660	A

Q. 661: Which of the following faults can be found by a static analysis tool?

I. Incorrect branch conditions logic.

II. Variables which are used after being defined.

III. Variables which are defined but never used.

IV. Standards violations

V. Illegal calls to routines

A. III, IV and V
B. II only

B. I, II, III and IV

D. II, III, IV and V

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 662: Which of the following characteristics and types of review processes belong together?

1. Led by the author
2. Undocumented
3. No management participation
4. Led by a trained moderator or leader
5. Uses entry and exit criteria
s. Inspection
t. Technical review
u. Informal review
v. Walkthrough

A. s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
B. s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
C. s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
D. s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 663: What statement about static analysis is true?

A. With static analysis, defects can be found that are difficult to find with dynamic testing.
B. Compiling is not a form of static analysis.
C. When properly performed, static analysis makes functional testing redundant.
D. Static analysis finds all faults.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 664: Which of the following statements about early test design are true and which are false?

1. Defects found during early test design are more expensive to fix.
2. Early test design can find defects.
3. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements.
4. Early test design takes more effort.

A. 1 and 3 are true. 2 and 4 are false.
B. 2 is true. 1, 3 and 4 are false.
C. 2 and 3 are true. 1 and 4 are false.
D. 2, 3 and 4 are true. 1 is false.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 665: Static code analysis typically identifies all but one of the following problems. Which is it?

A. Unreachable code
B. Undeclared variables
C. Faults in the requirements
D. Too few comments

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 666: In which document described in IEEE 829 would you find instructions for the steps to be taken for a test including set-up, logging, environment and measurement?

A. Test plan
B. Test design specification
C. Test case specification
D. Test procedure specification

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 667: With a highly experienced tester with a good business background, which approach to defining test procedures would be effective and most efficient for a project under severe time pressure?

A. A high-level outline of the test conditions and general steps to take.
B. Every step in the test spelled out in detail.
C. A high-level outline of the test conditions with the steps to take discussed in detail with another experienced tester.
D. Detailed documentation of all test cases and careful records of each step taken in the testing.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 668: Put the test cases that implement the following test conditions into the best order for the test execution schedule, for a test that is checking modifications of customers on a database.

1. Print modified customer record.
2. Change customer address: house number and street name.
3. Capture and print the on-screen error message.
4. Change customer address: postal code.
5. Confirm existing customer is on the database by opening that record.
6. Close the customer record and close the database.
7. Try to add a new customer with no details at all.

A. 5, 4, 2, 1, 3, 7, 6
B. 4, 2, 5,1, 6, 7, 3
C. 5, 4, 2, 1, 7, 3, 6
D. 5,1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 6

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 669: Why are both specification-based and structure-based testing techniques useful?

A. They find different types of defect.
B. Using more techniques is always better.
C. Both find the same types of defect.
D. Because specifications tend to be unstructured.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 670: What is a key characteristic of structure-based testing techniques?

A. They are mainly used to assess the structure of a specification.
B. They are used both to measure coverage and to design tests to increase coverage.
C. They are based on the skills and experience of the tester.
D. They use a formal or informal model of the software or component.

Correct Answers to the Earlier Questions - Q. 661 to Q 670 are as under:

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 661	A
Q. 662	B
Q. 663	A
Q. 664	C
Q. 665	C
Q. 666	D
Q. 667	A
Q. 668	C
Q. 669	A
Q. 670	B

Q. 671: Which of the following would be an example of decision-table testing for a financial application applied at the system-test level?
A. A table containing rules for combinations of inputs to two fields on a screen.
B. A table containing rules for interfaces between components.
C. A table containing rules for mortgage applications.
D. A table containing rules for chess.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 672: Which of the following could be a coverage measure for state transition testing?
V. All states have been reached.
W. The response time for each transaction is adequate.
X. Every transition has been exercised.
Y. All boundaries have been exercised.
Z. Specific sequences of transitions have been exercised.
A. X, Y and Z
B. V, X, Y and Z
C. W,X and Y
D. V, X and Z
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 673: Postal rates for 'light letters' are 25p up to 10g, 35p up to 50g plus an extra 10p for each additional 25g up to 100g. Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using equivalence partitioning?
A. 8, 42, 82, 102
B. 4, 15, 65, 92, 159
C. 10, 50, 75, 100
D. 5, 20, 40, 60, 80
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 674: Which of the following could be used to assess the coverage achieved for specification based (black-box) test techniques?
V. Decision outcomes exercised
W. Partitions exercised
X. Boundaries exercised
Y. State transitions exercised
Z. Statements exercised
A. Y, W, Y, or Z
B. W, X or Y
C. V, X or Z
D. W, X, Y or Z
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 675: Which of the following would structure-based test design techniques be most likely to be applied to?
1. Boundaries between mortgage interest rate bands.
2. An invalid transition between two different arrears statuses.
3. The business process flow for mortgage approval.
4. Control flow of the program to calculate repayments.
A. 2, 3 and 4
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 1,2 and 3
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 676: Use case testing is useful for which of the following?
P. Designing acceptance tests with users or customers.
Q. Making sure that the mainstream business processes are tested.
R. Finding defects in the interaction between components.
S. Identifying the maximum and minimum values for every input field.
T. Identifying the percentage of statements exercised by a sets of tests.
A. P, Q and R
B. Q, S and T
C. P,Q and S
D. R, S and T
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 677: Which of the following statements about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is correct?
A. 100% decision coverage is achieved if statement coverage is greater than 90%.
B. 100% statement coverage is achieved if decision coverage is greater than 90%.
C. 100% decision coverage always means 100% statement coverage.
D. 100% statement coverage always means 100% decision coverage.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 679: Why are error guessing and exploratory testing good to do?
A. They can find defects missed by specification-based and structure-based techniques.
B. They don't require any training to be as effective as formal techniques.
C. They can be used most effectively when there are good specifications.
D. They will ensure that all of the code or system is tested.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 680: How do experience-based techniques differ from specification-based techniques?
A. They depend on the tester's understanding of the way the system is structured rather than on a documented record of what the system should do.
B. They depend on having older testers rather than younger testers.
C. They depend on a documented record of what the system should do rather than on an individual's personal view.
D. They depend on an individual's personal view rather than on a documented record of what the system should do.

Correct Answers to the Earlier Questions - Q. 671 to Q 680 are as under:

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 671	C
Q. 672	D
Q. 673	B
Q. 674	B
Q. 675	C
Q. 676	A
Q. 677	C
Q. 678	C
Q. 679	A
Q. 680	D

Q. 681: When choosing which technique to use in a given situation, which factors should be taken into account?
V. previous experience of types of defects found in this or similar systems
W. the existing knowledge of the testers
X. regulatory standards that apply
Y. the type of test execution tool that will be used
Z. the documentation available
A. V, W, Y and Z
B. V, W and Y
C. X and Y
D. V, W and Y
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 682: Given the state diagram in following Figure, which test case is the minimum series of valid transitions to cover every state?



A. SS - S1 - S2 - S4 - S1 - S3 - ES
B. SS - S1 - S2 - S3 - S4 - S3 - S4 - ES
C. SS - S1 - S2 - S4 - S1 - S3 - S4 - S1 - S3 - ES
D. SS - S1 - S4 - S2 - S1 - S3 – ES

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 683: Why is independent testing important?
A. Independent testing is usually cheaper than testing your own work.
B. Independent testing is more effective at finding defects.
C. Independent testers should determine the processes and methodologies used.
D. Independent testers are dispassionate about whether the project succeeds or fails.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 684: Which of the following is among the typical tasks of a test leader?
A. Develop system requirements, design specifications and usage models.
B. Handle all test automation duties.
C. Keep tests and test coverage hidden from programmers.
D. Gather and report test progress metrics.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 685: According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we mean when we call someone a test manager?
A. A test manager manages a collection of test leaders.
B. A test manager is the leader of a test team or teams.
C. A test manager gets paid more than a test leader.
D. A test manager reports to a test leader.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 686: What is the primary difference between the test plan, the test design specification, and the test procedure specification?
A. The test plan describes one or more levels of testing, the test design specification identifies the associated high-level test cases and a test procedure specification describes the actions for executing a test.
B. The test plan is for managers, the test design specification is for programmers and the test procedure specification is for testers who are automating tests.
C. The test plan is the least thorough, the test procedure specification is the most thorough and the test design specification is midway between the two.
D. The test plan is finished in the first third of the project, the test design specification is finished in the middle third of the project and the test procedure specification is finished in the last third of the project.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 687: Which of the following factors is an influence on the test effort involved in most projects?
A. Geographical separation of tester and programmers.
B. The departure of the test manager during the project.
C. The quality of the information used to develop the tests.
D. Unexpected long-term illness by a member of the project team.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 688: The ISTQB Foundation Syllabus establishes a fundamental test process where test planning occurs early in the project, while test execution occurs at the end. Which of the following elements of the test plan, while specified during test planning, is assessed during test execution?
A. Test tasks
B. Environmental needs
C. Exit criteria
D. Test team training
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 689: Consider the following exit criteria which might be found in a test plan:
I. No known customer-critical defects.
II. All interfaces between components tested.
III. 100% code coverage of all units.
IV. All specified requirements satisfied.
V. System functionality matches legacy system for all business rules.
Which of the following statements is true about whether these exit criteria belong in an acceptance test plan?
A. All statements belong in an acceptance test plan.
B. Only statement I belongs in an acceptance test plan.
C. Only statements I, II, and V belong in an acceptance test plan.
D. Only statements I, IV, and V belong in an acceptance test plan.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 690: According to the ISTQB Glossary, what is a test level?
A. A group of test activities that are organized together.
B. One or more test design specification documents.
C. A test type.
D. An ISTQB certification

Correct Answers to the Earlier Questions - Q. 681 to Q 690 are as under:

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 681	B
Q. 682	A
Q. 683	B
Q. 684	D
Q. 685	B
Q. 686	A
Q. 687	C
Q. 688	C
Q. 689	D
Q. 690	A

Q. 691: Which of the following metrics would be most useful to monitor during test execution?
A. Percentage of test cases written.
B. Number of test environments remainin to be configured.
C. Number of defects found and fixed.
D. Percentage of requirements for which a test has been written.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 692: During test execution, the test manager describes the following situation to the project team: '90% of the test cases have been run. 20% of the test cases have identified defects. 127 defects have been found. 112 defects have been fixed and have passed confirmation testing. Of the remaining 15 defects, project management has decided that they do not need to be fixed prior to release.' Which of the following is the most reasonable interpretation of this test status report?
A. The remaining 15 defects should be confirmation tested prior to release.
B. The remaining 10% of test cases should be run prior to release.
C. The system is now ready for release with no further testing or development effort.
D. The programmers should focus their attention on fixing the remaining known defects prior to release.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 693: In a test summary report, the project's test leader makes the following statement, The payment processing subsystem fails to accept payments from American Express cardholders, which is considered a must-work feature for this release.' This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections?
A. Evaluation
B. Summary of activities
C. Variances
D. Incident description
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 694: During an early period of test execution, a defect is located, resolved and confirmed as resolved by re-testing, but is seen again later during subsequent test execution. Which of the following is a testing-related aspect of configuration management that is most likely to have broken down?
A. Traceability
B. Confirmation testing
C. Configuration control
D. Test documentation management
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 695: You are working as a tester on a project to develop a point-of-sales system for grocery stores and other similar retail outlets. Which of the following is a product risk for such a project?
A. The arrival of a more-reliable competing product on the market.
B. Delivery of an incomplete test release to the first cycle of system test.
C. An excessively high number of defect fixes fail during re-testing.
D. Failure to accept allowed credit cards.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 696: A product risk analysis meeting is held during the project planning period. Which of the following determines the level of risk?
A. Difficulty of fixing related problems in code
B. The harm that might result to the user
C. The price for which the software is sold
D. The technical staff in the meeting
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 697: You are writing a test plan using the IEEE 829 template and are currently completing the Risks and Contingencies section. Which of the following is most likely to be listed as a project risk?
A. Unexpected illness of a key team member
B. Excessively slow transaction-processing time
C. Data corruption under network congestion
D. Failure to handle a key use case
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 698: You and the project stakeholders develop a list of product risks and project risks during the planning stage of a project. What else should you do with those lists of risks during test planning?
A. Determine the extent of testing required for the product risks and the mitigation and contingency actions required for the project risks.
B. Obtain the resources needed to completely cover each product risk with tests and transfer responsibility for the project risks to the project manager.
C. Execute sufficient tests for the product risks, based on the likelihood and impact of each product risk and execute mitigation actions for all project risks.
D. No further risk management action is required at the test planning stage.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 699: According to the ISTQB Glossary, a product risk is related to which of the following?
A. Control of the test project
B. The test object
C. A single test item
D. A potential negative outcome
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 700: In an incident report, the tester makes the following statement, 'At this point, I expect to receive an error message explaining the rejection of this invalid input and asking me to enter a valid input. Instead the system accepts the input, displays an hourglass for between one and five seconds and finally terminates abnormally, giving the message, "Unexpected data type: 15. Click to continue." '
This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections of an IEEE 829 standard incident report?
A. Summary
B. Impact
C. Item pass/fail criteria
D. Incident description

Correct Answers to the Earlier Questions - Q. 691 to Q 700 are as under:

Question No.	Correct Answer
Q. 691	C
Q. 692	B
Q. 693	A
Q. 694	C
Q. 695	D
Q. 696	B
Q. 697	A
Q. 698	A
Q. 699	B
Q. 700	D